[TYPES] questiuon about strong normalization in untyped lambda-calculus
Robin Adams
robin at cs.rhul.ac.uk
Wed Oct 15 11:01:05 EDT 2008
On Tuesday 14 October 2008 05:24:03 Andrei Popescu wrote:
>
> I would like to know if there exists a set A of strongly normalizing terms
> such that the following holds:
>
> For all terms T,
> [T is in A]
> iff
> [the term T T_1 ... T_n is strongly normalizing
> for all natural numbers n and terms T_1,...,T_n in A]
There cannot be such a set.
Proof: Suppose A satisfies the conditions above. For any T_1, ..., T_n in A,
we have
T_1 T_1 T_2 ... T_n is strongly normalizing (using T_1 in A).
Hence (\x.xx)T_1 T_2 ... T_n is strongly normalizing.
Therefore, \x.xx is in A.
Therefore, (\x.xx)(\x.xx) is strongly normalizing.
This is a contradiction.
--
Robin Adams <robin at cs.rhul.ac.uk>
Royal Holloway, University of London
More information about the Types-list
mailing list