[POPLmark] Poplmark Digest, Vol 10, Issue 5
Karl Crary
crary at cs.cmu.edu
Mon Jun 5 15:23:12 EDT 2006
I think this question pithily summarizes the point under debate. My
position is that whenever we encode a formal system in a metalanguage,
we should prove that the encoding is isomorphic to the original system.
Some seem to feel that if you are using first-order encodings, adequacy
is too trivial to bother doing. I'm arguing that, to the contrary, the
proof-theory of the metalanguage has much more of an impact on the
adequacy proof than your strategy for dealing with binding.
-- Karl
Jevgenijs Sallinens wrote:
> Hi,
> Is it correct that need for 'adequacy' depends on if HOAS is involved?
> Seems, Karl is speaking about this case, but Daniel and Michael about
> establishing equivalence between different encodings withing same or different
> LF, when no need to bother about HOAS assumptions.
> In the last case strong normalizations required to ensure consistency, but
> according to Goedel we couldn't proof consistency within the system itself.
> Best Regards,
>
> -- Jevgenijs Sallinens
>
>
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